Thursday, May 12, 2022

“It Was of the LORD:” Samson Marrying a Pagan?

 

“It Was of the LORD”
(Did God Want Samson to Marry a Pagan?)
 
Troy J. Edwards
 

 
 
And thou take of their daughters unto thy sons, and their daughters go a whoring after their gods, and make thy sons go a whoring after their gods. (Exodus 34:16)

 

Neither shalt thou make marriages with them; thy daughter thou shalt not give unto his son, nor his daughter shalt thou take unto thy son. For they will turn away thy son from following me, that they may serve other gods: so will the anger of the LORD be kindled against you, and destroy thee suddenly. (Deuteronomy 7:3-4)
 
If we read Judges 14:4 literally, it appears as if God is the direct cause of someone violating His commandments, thus making His own character appear questionable. It implies that Samson’s sexual lust and willingness to marry pagans was the result of God’s doing.
A number of commentaries on Judges 14:4 claim that even though this was a clear violation of God’s divine statute, God had a “secret purpose” in bringing this about, which was the destruction of Israel’s enemies. However, if an all-wise God must move people to sin in order to fulfill His purposes—secret or otherwise, then He can be neither wise nor holy. Paul writes:
 
But if our unrighteousness commend the righteousness of God, what shall we say? Is God unrighteous who taketh vengeance? (I speak as a man) God forbid: for then how shall God judge the world? For if the truth of God hath more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner? (Romans 3:5-7)
 
James also wrote, “For the wrath of man worketh not the righteousness of God” (James 1:20). In simple terms, God does not need our sin to bring about His purposes. Furthermore, God would never subject man to temptation for any reason. Again, James said, “God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man” (James 1:13b).
So how do we reconcile Judges 14:4 with the truth that God does not want or need sin to accomplish His plans? It helps us if we take the time to learn Hebrew background, expressions and phraseology from which Scripture is derived. Certain expressions in Scripture, when rendered “word for word” in English, need to be understood from a Hebraic perspective. For example, the phrase “It was of the Lord” does not necessarily mean that God is the “divine manipulator” of the event:
 
It is a solemn, but not unusual expression in the Hebrew tongue, to say of a thing beyond measure great, that it is of the Lord; not always meaning hereby, that God himself is the immediate cause of it, but signifying it to be such, that naturally no account is easy to be given of it.[1]
 
Hence the statement “It was of the Lord” is an expression unique to the culture in which the Bible was written. It is what language experts refer to as an idiom. The Bible has many idioms that were pretty much transliterated into the English language. One of those idioms is one in which God is said to do that which He merely permitted. This is otherwise referred to as the “Hebrew idiom of permission.”
While explaining the authority to remit sins that our Lord delegated to His apostles, Thomas Jackson writes:
 
…. and this authority our Saviour expresses according to a well-known idiom of the Jews’ language. It is no wonder, then, that God is said to do that which He permitted men to do, when they had by their sins provoked Him to withdraw from them the restraints of His providence and grace. Inattention to Scripture forms of expression is one of the most fruitful sources of theological error.[2] (Emphasis added)
 
Jackson noted that our neglect of Hebrew idioms is the primary source of error. No doubt, that this inattention of this truth has led many to read in Scriptures such as Judges 14:4 the false idea that God moved Samson to sin.
Jackson goes on to explain how Judges 14:4 is to be understood through the lens of this the Hebrew idiom of permission:
 
Samson’s marriage with a heathen woman, belonging to the original inhabitants of Canaan, was a direct violation of the law of God. He had said to His people, “Neither shalt thou make marriages with them; thy daughter thou shalt not give unto his son, nor his daughter shalt thou take unto thy son.” (Deut. vii. 3.) When Samson set his heart upon such an alliance, his parents attempted to dissuade him from the enterprise, and urged him to turn his attention to some daughter of Israel, as his future wife; but in this it is said, “His father and his mother knew not that it was of the Lord, that He sought an occasion against the Philistines: for at that time the Philistines had dominion over Israel.” (Judges xiv. 4.) The meaning, we apprehend, is, not that it was “of the Lord” that Samson should break His law; but that as Samson was bent upon this unholy connexion, and would not be satisfied without it, God would not interpose His power to prevent it, but would overrule it for good, as He often does the evil actions of bad men. To Samson and his family the consequences of this marriage were most disastrous, as might be expected; but it led to beneficial results so far as the people of Israel were concerned. At this time they suffered greatly under the oppressive dominion of the heathen, who still dwelt in the land. By means of this marriage Samson was brought into direct intercourse with these oppressors; he destroyed their power, and liberated his own people, though he brought upon himself great dishonour, and even lost his life. Samson sinned, and endured the bitter penalty of his waywardness and folly; but “it was of the Lord” to bring good out of the evil, by making it a means of relief to His suffering people.[3]
 

As Jackson explained, it was Samson who was determined to violate God’s clear commands. God, being an omni-resourceful God, would find a way through Samson’s rebellion to accomplish His purpose for Israel. Nevertheless, this does not infer that God authored the event. That is why we must read Judges 14:4 as idiomatic rather than literal:

 
Ch. xiv.v.4 Of the Lord, in the Scripture idiom, does not necessarily imply that the event to which it may refer originated with God, but merely that he, to whom all things are known, had determined to make it subservient to accomplish his purposes. Samson grievously erred if the female was an idolator.[4]
 
Old Testament scholar Walter C. Kaiser also saw how reading Judges 14:4 with the idea that God literally brought about Samson’s rebellious behavior demonstrates a flawed understanding of the text. Kaiser explains that it must be examined in light of the Scripture idiom of permission:
 
The sin of Samson must not be attributed to the Lord, but the deliverance of the Israelites by Samson was from the Lord. Remember, scriptural language frequently attributes directly to God what he merely permits.[5] (Emphasis added)
 
Kaiser, as others, agree that Scriptures appearing to make God the author of sin must be read in a permissive sense. While God permitted Samson to sin and had the ability to work around his sin to accomplish His goal, as Kaiser further explains, this does not mean that God wanted or needed the sin itself:
 
My conclusion is that Samson was neither directed nor tempted by God to do what God had specifically prohibited in His Word. God wanted the defeat of the Philistines, but that did not give Samson carte blanche. Moreover, God’s blessing on one or more aspects of a person’s life is no indication that everything that person does is approved. Samson was plain bullheaded about this decision, and he refused to listen to his parents or to God. But neither Samson’s foolishness nor his stubbornness would prevent the design of God from being fulfilled.[6]
 
As Kaiser noted, when we examine Samson’s behavior, we cannot necessarily see any influence on God’s part. As another scholar noted, Samson, being an only child, may have possibly been engaging in “bratty” behavior:
 
This chapter opens with the courtship and marriage, which was properly reproved by his parents as contrary to the Mosaic law. Samson, as if often the case with only and darling sons, was wayward; he had not been subjected to control, and would not now submit to it. The matter, however, was “of the Lord:” not by his direction or approbation, but by the permission of his providence; and it formed an essential link in that chain of events which led to the liberation of Israel from the Philistines.[7] (Emphasis added)
 
It is possible that Samson was raised in a way that would ingrain in him a selfish attitude though the Bible appears to be silent on whether or not this is true. The most important thing for our purposes here is to understand that God did not influence it. Therefore, the statement, “it was of the Lord” must be understood as permissive rather than causative on God’s part.
Other scholars believe that Samson’s persistence to marry the Philistine woman was due to a desire to infiltrate their country and bring Israel’s deliverance:
 
Many Philistines were living in the villages of Dan across the border from their own land. They were not of the seven nations devoted by Moses to destruction, but still, it was contrary to the law of Moses that the Israelites should marry them. This law Samson was either ignorant of, or disregarded it. The expression, “She pleaseth me well,” is translated by some, “She answereth my purpose well:” and is coupled with the words, “It was of the Lord,” to show that Samson planned this in order to have a quarrel with the Philistines from their oppression. “It was of the Lord” in the sense that the Lord permitted it, that Samson might push forward, and in his individual capacity, forced to become God’s agent in the punishment of the Philistines.[8] (Emphasis added)
 
While this appears to be a different perspective from the previous quote, what is most important for our study is that both scholars understand God’s role in a permissive sense. God simply is not in favor of His people marrying those who could influence their hearts away from the true God:
 
Samson’s parents viewed his plan to marry the woman as unwise, but it was “of the Lord.” This means that God permitted it, though it was not a marriage that He preferred. It did not violate the Mosaic Law, and it was a situation God would use to punish the Philistines (Jdg_14:4; cf. Jdg_14:19). This fact did not mitigate Samson's guilt, but it shows how God providentially overrules human folly and brings His will to pass in spite of it (cf. Psa_76:10; Rom_8:28).[9] (Emphasis added)
 
Such marriages are not God’s preference and He could not have endorsed Samson’s behavior regardless of the outcome. However, He did not restrain Samson but allowed him to go forward with this unadvised act. Perhaps a better rendering of Judges 14:4, based on the exegetical evidence is as follows: “But his father and his mother knew not that the LORD would overrule this to bring about His original intentions to deliver Israel.”
Nonetheless, it is wise for the reader to keep in mind that any Scripture which seemingly makes God appear to be the author of sin, sickness and catastrophe must be interpreted through the Hebrew idiom. We have a number of books on this subject with more soon to be published. Check out our bookstore to see our latest books by click here. Keep checking back as we will be adding new books soon. Finally, visit and subscribe to our YouTube channel for more video teaching related to this and many other topics.


[1] Shuckford, Samuel The Sacred and Profane History of the World. Connected from the Creation of the World to the Dissolution of the Assyrian Empire (London: W. Baynes, 1808), pp. 39, 40

[2] Jackson, Thomas The Providence of God, Viewed in the Light of Holy Scripture (London: John Mason, 1862), pp. 300, 301

[3] Ibid, pp. 301, 302

[4] Davidson, David The Comprehensive Pocket Bible Containing the Old and New Testaments with Explanatory Notes by David Davidson (Edinburgh: James Brydone, 1848), p. 181

[5] Kaiser Jr., Walter C. Hard Sayings of the Bible (Downers Grove, IL: Intervarsity Press, 1996), pp. 196, 197

[6] Ibid, p. 197

[7] Patton, William (Editor) The Cottage Bible and Family Expositor: Genesis-Song of Solomon (Hartford: Case, Tiffany, & Burnham, 1842), p. 383

[8] Towner, D. B. “Daily Scripture Readings” in Record of Christian Work, Volume 13 (New York: Fleming H. Revell, 1894), p. 336

[9] “Judges 14:4” in Constable, Thomas L. Expository Notes of Dr. Constable, E-Sword edition


 ===================================================

Visit our web page:

Like us on Facebook:

Follow us on Gab.com

Subscribe to us on Minds.com:

Become a Contact with me on MeWe:

Subscribe to our YouTube channel:

Tuesday, May 10, 2022

Does God Elect Only a Few for Salvation? (Part 1)

 

Calvinist Proof-Texts Answered
 
“…. because God hath from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth” (2 Thess. 2:13b)
 
Does God Elect Only a Few for Salvation? (Part 1)
 
“Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.” (2 Tim. 2:4)
 
“In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise.” (Eph. 1:13)
 
“This is because he chose you from the beginning to be the first crop of the harvest. This brought salvation, through your dedication to God by the Spirit and through your belief in the truth.” (2 Thess. 2:13; Common English Bible)
 
Commentary: The Thessalonians were saved by believing the truth, something God desires all men to have knowledge of in order to be saved (John 20:31). God’s choosing was not an irresistible election from eternity. As Thomas Coke explains, “The original word ειλετο signifies a voluntary favourable designation, appointment, and choice of a person to any particular purpose and end; not such a choice as necessarily secures the end, or is inconsistent with the refusal of the person so chosen to accept the favour intended him.” (Coke, A Commentary on the Holy Bible, E-Sword).


 ===================================================

Visit our web page:

Like us on Facebook:

Follow us on Gab.com

Subscribe to us on Minds.com:

Become a Contact with me on MeWe:

Subscribe to our YouTube channel:

Monday, May 9, 2022

Did Kenneth Copeland Really Call God “The Biggest Failure of All Time?”

 

Did Kenneth Copeland Really Call God “The Biggest Failure of All Time?”

By Troy J. Edwards


You are of the father the slanderer “devil” and the desires of your father it is your will to do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and did not stand in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own: for he is a liar, and the father of lies. (John 8:44; Context Group Version)

You can love a man, or hate a man, but you most certainly should never misrepresent a man. You can disagree with a person’s doctrine but you become an ally with Satan when you claim that a person believes something that they don’t. To claim that someone embraces a particular idea about God that cannot be proven by a clear examination of all that thy have taught is called slander and has its origins with the evil one.

There is no greater example of this than the lie that continues to circulate via social media and so-called “apologetic ministry” web pages about a statement made by the well-known Word-Faith minister, Kenneth Copeland (Many of these so-called “ministries” need to be more “apologetic” in apologizing for their slander of others—pun intended). Copeland is alleged to have called God the “biggest failure of all time.”

I admit that I have not listened to a lot of Kenneth Copeland sermons nor have I read any book by him all the way through. But the little I have read or heard from him has never given me the impression that he believes God to be a literal failure. Therefore, I refer to an excellent book by James R. Spencer titled, “Bleeding Hearts and Propaganda: The Fall of Reason in the Church” to assist us in getting a better clarification of what Copeland actually said and meant when he made the alleged statement:

GOD–The BIGGEST FAILURE OF ALL TIME!
In Christianity in Crisis Hanegraaff also suggest that Copeland believes "God is the biggest failure of all time." It is true that Copeland uttered those words, but a rational person would ask "What does he mean by them?" Words are symbols which represent thoughts. Our job is to take a man’s words and figure out what he meant by them–not to try to trap him into translating his words into a meaning he did not place on them.
Hanegraaff suggests Copeland’s words mean he has no respect for God and deems Him to be a failure. If Copeland believes that, he is not a Christian, let alone a minister of the gospel!
Of course, that is not what he means! When you go to those words in context, it immediately becomes clear what he is saying. He is addressing the fact that people get down on themselves because of their personal failures. So he reminds us that God Himself is a "failure" in the sense that He "failed" when–in Copeland’s words–"He lost His top-ranking, most anointed angel; the first man He ever created; the first woman He ever created; the whole earth and all the fullness therein; a third of the angels, at least–that’s a big loss, man." He made that statement on a "Praise-a-Thon" program on Trinity Broadcasting Network in April, 1988.
Obviously, the failures here were Lucifer, Adam, Eve, and the demon angels–not God. Copeland is saying that God has suffered disappointment and can understand our human condition. It is ludicrous to try to suggest from the text that Copeland sees some flaw in God in all this. That is absolutely not what he was saying. When Hanegraaff plays that game, he is being supremely biased and he undermines truth–the very thing an apologist should be striving to exalt.
Copeland in saying "God is the greatest failure of all time" is being ironic. He is using a rhetorical device to communicate something about the heart of God for his creatures. This is a preaching technique pastors have used throughout the ages. To suggest that Copeland is attacking the character or nature of God is as backwards as saying he doesn’t think Jesus is God.
But Hanegraaff, in his determination to throw the Faith Teachers out of the Church not only claims they believe Jesus is not God and that God is a failure, he also says the Faith Teachers believe men can become gods.
Spencer, James Bleeding Hearts and Propaganda: The Fall of Reason in the Church (Lafayette, LA: Huntington House Publishers, 1995), pp. 183, 184

Obviously, Copeland’s words were taken out of context. Copeland was made to say something that he really did not say. The misrepresentation of someone’s words is not a minor thing. How can one trust another to tell the truth about someone’s ministry and doctrine when that individual cannot be fair and unbiased in examining said minister’s words and motives? And yet, these “apologetic” ministries claim to be serving Christ. Nonetheless, their tactics are more in line with Satan’s slanderous ways.

Be cautious in reading things by these so-called apologetics ministries, especially in their attacks upon other ministers. While I intend to put out more material on these topics in the future, in the meantime I would recommend some of the YouTube videos by my friend, Rod Saunders, in which he tackles some of these issue as well as a book by another friend, Gregg Huestis titled, “Another Side of the Coin: The Other Side of the Faith Message.”

 ===================================================

Visit our web page:

Like us on Facebook:

Follow us on Gab.com

Subscribe to us on Minds.com:

Become a Contact with me on MeWe:

Subscribe to our YouTube channel:

Saturday, May 7, 2022

Calvinist Proof-Texts Answered: Is God’s Drawing Irresistible?

 


Calvinist Proof-Texts Answered
 
“No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.” (John 6:44)
 
Is God’s Drawing Irresistible?
 
“And you were long-suffering unto them [years many], and drew out patience unto them [years many], and attested to them by your spirit, by the hand of your prophets.  But they did not give ear, and you gave them into the hand of the peoples of the land.” (Neh. 9:30; Apostolic Bible Polyglot w/ Strong’s Numbers)

“The LORD [at a distance shall be seen] by him, saying, [affection With an everlasting] I loved you; on account of this I drew you for pitying.” (Jer. 31:3; Apostolic Bible Polyglot w/ Strong’s Numbers)

Commentary: The Greek word for draw is helkuō. It is the exact same Greek word used in the Septuagint version of the Old Testament Scriptures cited above. Furthermore, God complains to Israel, “I called you, but ye answered not” (Jer. 7:13; 35:17). Here we see that God’s drawing is not an irresistible grace. On the contrary, Jesus said, “And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me” (John 12:32; again, same Greek word). Obviously, all of the men that Jesus draws to Himself do not answer His call.

 ===================================================

Visit our web page:

Like us on Facebook:

Follow us on Gab.com

Subscribe to us on Minds.com:

Become a Contact with me on MeWe:

Subscribe to our YouTube channel:

Thursday, May 5, 2022

Dr. Robert Young: Does God Afflict People with Leprosy?


Dr. Robert Young: Does God Afflict People with Leprosy?
 
When ye be come into the land of Canaan, which I give to you for a possession, and I put the plague of leprosy in a house of the land of your possession.
(Leviticus 14:34)
 
Commentary:
“I HAVE PUT.] lit. ‘given.’ Some have supposed this to indicate that the leprosy in this case was a direct divine infliction; but in Scripture language what God permits he is said to do.”
Dr. Robert Young, A Commentary on the Holy Bible, p. 315

 ===================================================

Visit our web page:

Like us on Facebook:

Follow us on Gab.com

Subscribe to us on Minds.com:

Become a Contact with me on MeWe:

Subscribe to our YouTube channel:

Wednesday, April 27, 2022

Moses Hand Became Leprous


Moses Hand Became Leprous
 
By Troy J. Edwards
 

When we believe that God is the author of any evil or disaster it becomes much easier to submit to it than to resist or fight against it. This is especially evident in relation to sickness and disease. In order to vindicate God from the charge that He inflicts sickness on anyone, especially His children, we have sought to dig into the background of those places in the Bible where God is said to have done so.

However, challenges still arise and need to be addressed. One challenge that has been presented to us by opponents of our message is the fact that God allegedly made Moses hand leprous. Let’s take a look at this passage:
 
Exodus 4:6-8
6 And the Lord said furthermore unto him, Put now thine hand into thy bosom. And he put his hand into his bosom: and when he took it out, behold, his hand was leprous as snow.
7 And he said, Put thine hand into thy bosom again. And he put his hand into his bosom again; and plucked it out of his bosom, and, behold, it was turned again as his other flesh.
8 And it shall come to pass, if they will not believe thee, neither hearken to the voice of the first sign, that they will believe the voice of the latter sign.
 
God was dealing with the challenge of a people who had been slaves for over four hundred years. No matter what harsh conditions a slave might face, there is still a certain amount of security in remaining in bondage and a fear of the unknown when no longer a slave.
 
God chose to use a particular sign with Moses that would certainly draw the people’s attention. Leprosy was a sickness most fearful among both Hebrew and heathen due to its reputation for being incurable. God needed Moses to show them the thing that they feared most and then show them that, unlike the Egyptian gods or any of the other pagan deities, He has the ability to heal all diseases.
 
This sign is not an indication that God is the afflicter of leprosy. There is not even an explanation as to how the sign supposedly came about but it would certainly be Moses’s choice as to when the sign would take place and when the healing would occur, which is usually not the case with the average leper.
 
Furthermore, the Scripture makes no reference to God personally giving Moses the leprosy. The sign could have been accomplished by His temporary removal of protection from Moses in that area just as it was for Miriam. Our opponents may not like this particular answer by the burden falls on them to prove it wrong. The evidence of Scripture, however, shows that all sickness is due to the fall and is often inflicted by Satan (Acts 10:38; Luke 13:16; Job 2:7). God is only ever said to afflict with sickness in a permissive rather than in a causative sense (Exodus 12:23; Psalm 78:50; also compare Job 2:7 with Job 42:11).
 
One of the marks of Jesus’ healing ministry was how often He healed (or commanded to be healed) those with leprosy (Matt. 8:2-3; 10:8; 11:5; Mark 1:40-42; Luke 5:12-13; 7:22; 17:12-19). This being the case, leprosy is under the category of satanic oppression that Jesus is said to have healed:
 

How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him. (Acts 10:38)

 
Since all the people that Jesus healed are said to have been oppressed of the devil then leprosy would have to fall under that category.
 
 
If this article was a blessing to you then you may find some of our video teaching helpful. We recommend the following:
 
John 9 and the Man Born Blind
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IfnILiQwsPM
 
We also recommend some of our most helpful books:
 

 
Visit www.vindicatinggod.org for more details.

  ===================================================

Visit our web page:

Like us on Facebook:

Follow us on Gab.com

Subscribe to us on Minds.com:

Become a Contact with me on MeWe:

Subscribe to our YouTube channel:

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCXn0mUpckKTDhLiRiR5PIJg 

Friday, April 22, 2022

God Caused the Rape of David’s Wives?

David, through his sin, forfeited God's protection and gave Satan an opportunity to step in, leading to his own son, Absalom, to rape his concubines. God is not the cause of such immorality. However, He is unable to intervene when we have chosen to open that door to the devil.


God Caused the Rape of David’s Wives?

Thus saith the LORD, Behold, I will raise up evil against thee out of thine own house, and I will take thy wives before thine eyes, and give them unto thy neighbour, and he shall lie with thy wives in the sight of this sun. 
(2 Samuel 12:11; KJV)

Alternative Translation:
Thus saith the LORD, Behold, I will raise up evil against thee out of thine own house, and I will suffer thy wives to be taken before thine eyes, and to be given to thy neighbor, and he shall lie with thy wives in the light of the sun.
(2 Samuel 12:11; The Holy Bible, Authorized Version, with Emendations [by J.T. Conquest].)




===================================================

Visit our web page:

Like us on Facebook:

Follow us on Gab.com

Subscribe to us on Minds.com:

Become a Contact with me on MeWe:

Subscribe to our YouTube channel:

https://www.youtube.com/channel/UCXn0mUpckKTDhLiRiR5PIJg